* So in French, from Aprilis, _Avrilis_; habere, _avoir_; Febris, Fièvre: [Greek: episkopos], _evéque_.

[11] Ph is found in no Gaelic word which is not inflected, except a few words transplanted from the Greek or the Hebrew, in which _ph_ represents the Greek ­[phi], or the Hebrew [Hebrew: P]. It might perhaps be more proper to represent [Hebrew: P] by _p_ rather than _ph_; and to represent [phi] by _f_, as the Italians have done in _filosofia_, _filologia_, &c., by which some ambiguities and anomalies in declension would be avoided.

Elements of Gaelic Grammar — Part 104

[12] The affinity between the sounds of _v_ and _u_ is observable in many languages, particularly in the Hebrew, Greek, and Latin.

Elements of Gaelic Grammar — Part 104

[13] Agreeably to the like pronunciation, the Welsh write this word _marw_, the Manks _marroo_.

Elements of Gaelic Grammar — Part 104

[14] It is still pronounced fuair in the Northern Highlands, and it is so written in Irish. See Irish Bible, Gen. xxxv. 18, 19; John ii. 14, viii. 62, 53.

[15] So fathast _yet_, fein _self_, are in some places pronounced as if they began with an _h_ instead of an _f_. The latter word is, by the Manks, written hene.

[16] Over a considerable part of the Highlands that propensity to aspiration, which has been already remarked, has affixed to _c_, in the end of a word, or of an accented syllable, the sound of _chc_; as, mac _a son_, torc _a boar_, acain _moaning_; pronounced often machc, torchc, achcain.

There is reason to believe that this compound sound of _chc_ was not known of old, but is a modern corruption.

This pronunciation is not universal over the Highlands. In some parts the _c_ retains its proper sound in all situations.

If the articulation in question had, from the first, been compounded, it is highly probable that it would have been represented, in writing, by a combination of letters, such as _chc_; especially as we find that the same sound is represented at other times, not by a single consonant, but by a combination, as in the case of _chd_. Why should it be thought that boc _a buck_, and bochd _poor_, were originally pronounced alike, when they are distinguished both in writing and signification?

The word [Hebrew: SHQ] _a sack_, has been transplanted from the Hebrew into many languages, among the rest the Gaelic, where it has been always written sac, although now pronounced sachc. In none of the other languages in which the word is used (except the Welsh alone), has the final palatal been aspirated. It would appear therefore that the sound sachc is a departure from the original Gaelic pronunciation. The same change may have happened in the pronunciation of other words, in which the plain _c_ is now aspirated, though it may not have been so originally.